October 2021 Customs Broker Examination

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October 21, 2021
U.S. CUSTOMS AND BORDER PROTECTION ___________________________________________________________________
Customs Broker License Examination
This examination consists of 80 questions. The minimum passing score is 75%. For each question, choose the letter representing your answer (A, B, C, D, or E). There is no penalty for guessing; therefore, you should attempt to answer every question. Each question has a single best answer.
You are responsible for having the following references:
• Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (2020 Basic Edition, No Supplements) (HTSUS)
• Title 19, Code of Federal Regulations (2020 Revised as of April 1, 2020, Parts 1 to 199) • (19 CFR 0 -141) (19 CFR 141-199)
• ACE Entry Summary Instructions Version 2.4a (ACE ES)
• Right to Make Entry Directive 3530-002A (RTME)
• ACE Entry Summary Business Rules and Process Document (Trade External 10.50, March 2021 (Section 1 – 12) (ACE BRPD)
You have four and a half (4.5) hours (270 minutes) to complete this examination.
In addition to the 80 exam questions, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be administering six voluntary process evaluation questions at the end of the exam. The questions should take no longer than 5 minutes to complete. The purpose of the survey questions is to inform future testing processes. These survey questions are voluntary and will have NO impact on your scores.

Section 2: Customs Broker License Examination

Category I – ACE Category II – Foreign Trade Zone/Warehouse Category III – Marking Category IV – Fines & Penalties Category V – Entry Category VI – Drawback Category VII – Bonds Category VIII – Classification Category IX – Anti-Dumping/Countervailing Duties Category X – Intellectual Property Right Category XI – Value Category XII – Quota Category XIII – Free Trade Agreement Category XIV - Miscellaneous Category XV – Broker Compliance

Questions 1 - 4 Questions 5 - 8 Questions 9 - 10 Questions 11 - 14 Questions 15 – 26 Questions 27 - 30 Questions 31 - 33 Questions 34 - 46 Questions 47 - 50 Questions 51 - 55 Questions 56 - 61 Questions 62 - 64 Questions 65 – 68 Questions 69 - 72 Questions 73 – 80

Category I – ACE
1. Entry documents must be filed within _____________ calendar days of the date that a shipment arrives in the United States. A. 5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 15 E. 30
2. If there is a difference of less than $20.00 between the total amount of duties, taxes, and fees, including interest in the original liquidation, pertaining to a Post Summary Correction, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) has the authority to disregard the difference and liquidate “as entered” (De Minimis Rule). Under what Section of title 19 Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR) would you find this authority? A. 19 CFR 141.1 B. 19 CFR 143.28 C. 19 CFR 145.26 D. 19 CFR 159.6 E. 19 CFR 171.62
3. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is available for the transmission of single transaction eBonds. What is the activity code for an Importer Security Filing (ISF) eBond? A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 E. 16
4. To submit a Post Summary Correction (PSC), the original entry summary or previously filed PSC must meet ALL the following criteria, EXCEPT: A. Entry summary must be in accepted status. B. Entry summary cannot be under a CBP review. C. Entry summary must be in CBP control. D. Entry summary must be fully paid. E. Entry summary must be liquidated.

Category II – Foreign Trade Zone/Warehouse
5. Which class of customs warehouse allows for bonded bins or parts of buildings or of elevators to be used for the storage of grain? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
6. A ________________ or unique identifier will be used to identify and trace merchandise within a Foreign Trade Zone. A. CBP Form 214 B. Customs in-bond seal C. Zone lot number D. Lot file E. CBP Form 3461
7. ________________ allows for delivery of merchandise to a Foreign Trade Zone without prior application and approval on CBP Form 214. A. Temporary deposit B. CBP Form 7501 C. A weekly permit D. First-in-first-out (FIFO) E. Direct delivery
8. With regards to a Foreign Trade Zone, the term ______________ refers to a person or firm using a zone or subzone for storage, handling, or processing of merchandise. A. Unique identifier B. Guard service C. User D. Bonded carrier E. Operator

Category III – Marking
9. What is the appropriate country of origin marking for a pair of shoes manufactured in China and imported with its unsealed shoebox that reads “Kicks! America's Favorite Sneaker”? A. Shoes must be marked with country of origin; shoebox is exempt from country of origin marking. B. Shoes are exempt from country of origin marking. C. Both the shoebox and shoes must be marked with country of origin. D. Only the shoebox must be marked with country of origin. E. Shoes and shoebox can be marked with a sticker stating the country of origin.
10. An arts and crafts store will be importing a container of 150 four-hole rim buttons that are three inches in diameter and one half inch thick from France. Each button is imported in its own separate, sealed paper envelope. The store will sell the envelopes of buttons in a large bin mixed with other envelopes of buttons. Where must the importer mark the country of origin of the buttons? A. On the front rim of the button B. On the outermost display bin that will contain the envelopes of buttons C. On the outer edge of the button D. On the envelope containing the button E. On the back of the button

Category IV – Fines & Penalties
11. Petitions for relief from seizures must be filed within ____ days from the date of mailing of the notice of seizure. A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60 E. 90
12. What is the time limit after the date of sale for filing a petition for restoration of proceeds of sale? A. 1 month B. 2 months C. 3 months D. 5 months E. 8 months
13. Supplemental petitions filed in cases involving violations of 19 USC 1641 where the amount of the penalty assessed exceeds $10,000 will be forwarded to_______________. A. Local Fines, Penalties and Forfeiture Officer, Office of Field Operations B. Broker Management Branch, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade C. FP&F Branch, Office of Field Operations, HQ D. Import Analysis Branch, Center of Excellence and Expertise, Office of Field Operations E. Chief, Penalties Branch, Border Security and Trade Compliance Division, Regulations and Rulings, Office of International Trade
14. Under the degrees of culpability under Section 592, a violation is considered fraudulent when: A. If a material false statement, omission or act in connection with the transaction was committed (or omitted) knowingly, was done voluntarily and intentionally, as established by clear and convincing evidence. B. It results from an act or acts (of commission or omission) done with actual knowledge of or wanton disregard for the relevant facts and with indifference to or disregard for the violators obligations under the statute. C. It results from an act or acts (of commission or omission) done through either the failure to exercise the degree of reasonable care and competence expected from a person in the same circumstance, or in communicating information in a manner that may be understood by the recipient. D. It results from failure to exercise reasonable care and competence. E. It results from failure to exercise reasonable care and competence to ensure that statements made and information provided in connection with the importation of merchandise are complete and accurate.

Category V – Entry
15. In which General Note (GN) to the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) is the Peru Trade Promotion Agreement (PTPA) Implementation Act found? A. GN 4 B. GN 28 C. GN 32 D. GN 26 E. GN 33
16. In cases where imported cargo is unloaded from a commercial vessel at a port within the definition of 19 CFR 24.24 Harbor maintenance fee, and admitted into a foreign trade zone, the applicant for admission who becomes liable for the fee must pay all fees for which he is liable on a _____________ basis. A. Yearly B. Daily C. Monthly D. Quarterly E. Weekly
17. Where can you find the regulation pertaining to the compensation (liquidated damages) for breach of bond? A. 19 CFR 111 B. 19 CFR 113 C. 19 CFR 114 D. 19 CFR 141 E. 19 CFR 144
18. An importer would like to submit a classification ruling request to CBP to determine the correct Harmonized Tariff Schedule provision for a new product. To whom must the ruling request letter be addressed? A. Director, Center for Excellence and Expertise for the commodity involved B. Port Director, intended port of entry C. CBP, Attention: Regulations and Rulings, Office of International Trade, Washington, DC D. Director, National Commodity Specialist Division, Regulations and Rulings, Office of International Trade, US Customs and Border Protection, 201 Varick St., Ste.501 New York, NY E. CBP no longer issues classification rulings, thus none can be submitted

19. An individual who qualifies as an importer of record under 19 USC 1484 may authorize an unpaid agent to enter merchandise on their behalf, so long as ___________________. A. The merchandise is a gift. B. The authorization is made in writing, no power of attorney is required, and the importer is not acting on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association. C. The individual is a regular importer, the appointment is for a single article of merchandise, and the agent is a relative. D. The individual is not acting on behalf of a corporate entity, and the shipment is valued at or under $800. E. The individual is not a regular importer, the appointment is for a single non-commercial shipment, and the authorization is made by executing a power of attorney.
20. Which piece of information is NOT a requirement on a commercial invoice? A. All rebates, drawbacks, and bounties, separately itemized, allowed upon the exportation of the merchandise B. An itemized list by name and amount of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation, if included in the invoice price, and so identified C. The kind of currency, whether gold, silver or paper D. The port of entry to which the merchandise is destined E. The name of a responsible employee of the exporter, who has knowledge, or who can readily obtain knowledge, of the transaction
21. Which of the following mail articles is NOT subject to examination or inspection by Customs? A. Bona-fide gifts with an aggregate fair retail value not exceeding $800 in the country of shipment B. Mail packages addressed to officials of the U.S. Government containing merchandise C. Personal and household effects of military and civilian personnel returning to the United States upon the completion of extended duty abroad D. Diplomatic pouches bearing the official seal of France and certified as only containing documents E. Plant material imported by mail for purposes of immediate exportation by mail
22. Excessive deposits of Alcohol or Tobacco taxes cannot be refunded in cases where: A. The tax was over paid due to misclassification of the article. B. The tax was paid or collected on an imported article seized and forfeited or destroyed as contraband. C. The tax was paid or collected on an article imported for the personal or household use of the importer. D. The tax was paid or collected on an article refused admission to Customs territory and exported or destroyed in accordance with section 558, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended. E. The refund of tax is pursuant to a claim based solely on errors of computation of the quantity of the imported article, or on mathematical errors in computation of the tax due.

23. Which of the following Chapter 98 provisions has a Merchandise Processing Fee (MPF) requirement? A. Subheading 9801.00.10, HTSUS B. Subheading 9801.00.25, HTSUS C. Subheading 9802.00.40, HTSUS D. Subheading 9802.00.50, HTSUS E. Subheading 9802.00.60, HTSUS
24. The port director may revoke or suspend the license of a cartman or lighterman if any of the following is found, EXCEPT: A. His license is not promptly produced upon demand. B. His vehicle or vessel is properly marked. C. The license was obtained through fraud or the misstatement of a material fact. D. The holder of such license permits it to be used by any other person. E. The holder is guilty of any negligence, dishonest or deceptive practices or carelessness in the conduct of his business.
25. Which of the following is NOT a factor which is indicative of a broker showing a lack of supervision or lack of working knowledge of Customs procedures? A. Low rate of attendance at CBP sponsored educational events compared to other brokers in the permitted district B. A high rate of entry rejections compared to other brokers in the permitted district C. A high rate of late filing liquidated damages cases when compare to other brokers in the permitted district D. An inordinate amount of entries for which free entry is claimed but no documents to support the claims are submitted E. Failure to settle (including petitioning) liquidated damage claims in a timely manner
26. A broker files a transportation and exportation entry for a shipment of merchandise on March 1, 2021. This shipment arrives at the Port of Chicago the next day on March 2nd to move under bond in two portions to be exported from the Port of Charleston. The first portion leaves the Port of Chicago the next day on March 3rd and arrives at the Port of Charleston on March 7th. The second portion leaves the Port of Chicago on March 5th and arrives at the Port of Charleston on March 9th. CBP has not granted an extension for this merchandise. By which date must the merchandise covered by the transportation and exportation bond be exported from the port of Charleston? A. March 16th B. March 17th C. March 20th D. March 22nd E. March 24th

Category VI – Drawback
27. How much is the maximum administrative penalty, in terms of total actual, or potential loss of revenue, for a person who seeks, induces, or affects the payment of drawback by fraud or negligence? A. 2 times the total, actual, or potential loss of revenue B. 3 times the total, actual, or potential loss of revenue C. 4 times the total, actual, or potential loss of revenue D. 5 times the total, actual, or potential loss of revenue E. 10 times the total, actual, or potential loss of revenue
28. All records which pertain to the filing of a drawback claim or to the information contained in the records in connection with the filing of a drawback claim must be retained for ____ after liquidation of such claims or longer period if required by law. A. 180 calendar days B. 5 years C. 4 years D. 3 years E. 1 year
29. A Notice of Intent to Export, Destroy, or Return Merchandise for Purposes of Drawback on CBP Form 7553 for merchandise that is going to be destroyed, shall be filed by the claimant with the CBP port where the destruction is to take place at least _______ working days prior to the date of intended destruction. A. 1 B. 2 C. 7 D. 10 E. 14
30. Each manufacturer or producer submitting a letter of notification of intent to operate under a general manufacturing drawback ruling must provide the following specific detailed information, EXCEPT: A. Basis of claim used for calculating drawback B. Name and address of manufacturer or producer C. Locations of the factories which will operate under the letter of notification D. Internal Revenue Service Number (IRS) E. Issuance date of the general manufacturing drawback ruling

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October 2021 Customs Broker Examination